Lab 9.5.2 Troubleshooting ACL Configuration and Placement

Lab 9.5.2 Troubleshooting ACL Configuration and Placement

Step 1: Connect the equipment

1. Connect the Fa0/0 interface of Router 1 to the Fa0/1 interface of the switch using a straight-through cable.
2. Connect each host to the Fa0/2 switch port of the switch using a straight-through cable.
3. Connect serial cables from Router 1 to Router 2 according to the topology diagram.
4. Connect both hosts on Router 2 to the Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 of Router 2 using crossover cables according to the above topology.

Step 2: Load the preconfiguration on ISP

1. See your instructor for obtaining the preconfigurations for this lab.
2. Connect Host 1 to the console port of Router 1 to perform loading the preconfigurations using a terminal emulation program.
3. Transfer the configuration from Host 1 to Router 1:

1) In the terminal emulation program on H1, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the preconfiguration file and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to Router 1.

3) When the transfer is complete, save the configuration.

Step 3: Load the preconfiguration on HQ

Copy the preconfiguration on HQ using the process detailed in Step 2.

Step 4: Configure hosts H1 and H2

1. Configure the Ethernet interfaces of H1 and H2 with the IP addresses and default gateways from the addressing table.
2. Test the PC configuration by pinging the default gateway from each PC.

Step 5: Configure the web server host H3

1. Load the Discovery LIVE CD on Host H3. The server’s Ethernet interface is preconfigured with the IP address and default gateway shown in the addressing table. If using another web server, configure the IP address and subnet mask to match that in the table.
2. Test the PC configuration by pinging the default gateway from the PC.

Step 6: Troubleshoot the HQ router and access list 101

1. Begin troubleshooting with the HQ router.

Access list 101 is implemented to protect the internal corporate network zone, which houses private servers and internal clients. No other network should be able to access it. Protecting the corporate network begins by specifying which traffic can exit out of the network.

1. Examine the HQ router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of access list 101. Enter the command show access-list 101.
2. Verify reachability by pinging all systems and routers from
3. If any errors were found, make the necessary configuration changes to HQ. Remember that access lists have to be deleted and re-entered if there is any discrepancy in the commands. E
4. Issue the command show ip interface fa0/0.
5. Perform the pings from Step 6c again. If the pings are not successful, continue to troubleshoot other access lists.

Step 7: Troubleshoot the HQ router and access list 102

1. Continue troubleshooting with the HQ router. Access list 102 is implemented to limit the traffic into the corporate network
2. Examine the HQ router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of access list 102. Enter the command show access-list 102.
3. Verify reachability by pinging all systems and routers from each system. If the access list is working correctly, H1 cannot ping H2, but all of the other pings should be successful.

Can H2 ping the web server? __________ no

Can H2 ping H1? __________ no

Can H1 ping the web server? __________ no

Can H1 ping H2? __________ no

1. If any errors were found, make the necessary configuration changes to HQ. Remember to delete the entire access list before making the corrections. The commands must be in logical, sequential order.
2. H2 should be able to ping H1. However, H1 should not be able to ping H2 at this point. Open a web browser, such as Windows Explorer, Netscape Navigator, or Firefox and enter the address of the web server in the address location. Verify that H2 has web access to the web server.
3. Issue the command show ip interface fa0/0.

Is the access list applied in the correct direction on the interface? __________ yes

Step 8: Troubleshoot the HQ router and access list 111

1. Continue troubleshooting with the HQ router. Access list 111 is implemented to protect the DMZ network.
2. Examine the HQ router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of access list 111. Enter the command show access-list 111.
3. Verify reachability by pinging all systems and routers from each system. H1 should not be able to ping H2, but all other pings should be successful if the access list is correct.

Step 9: Troubleshoot the HQ router and access list 112

1. Continue troubleshooting with the HQ router. Access list 112 is implemented to protect the DMZ network.
2. Examine the HQ router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of access list 112. Enter the command show access-list 112.
3. Verify reachability by pinging all systems and routers from each system. Only H2 should be able to successful ping all locations. If the access list is correct, H1 should not be able to ping the web server or H2.

Step 10: Troubleshoot the HQ router and access list 121

1. Continue troubleshooting with the HQ router.mAccess list 121 is implemented to deter spoofing.
2. Examine the HQ router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of access list 121. Enter the command show access-list 121.
3. Verify reachability by pinging all systems and routers from each system. If the access list is correct, only H2 should successfully ping the web server.
4. d. Issue the command show interface serial0/0/0.

Is the access list applied in the correct direction on the interface? __________ no

Step 11: Reflection

There were a number of configuration errors in the preconfigurations that were provided for this lab. Use this space below to write a brief description of the errors that you found. Jawaban: The student should briefly summarize the errors encountered with the ACLs.

Lab 9.4.2 Troubleshooting WAN and PPP Connectivity

Step 1: Connect the equipment

Connect the equipment as shown in the topology diagram.

Step 2: Load the preconfiguration on R1

1. See your instructor for obtaining the preconfigurations for this lab. Instructor note: The preconfigurations and final configurations can be found at the end of this lab.
2. Connect PC1 to the console port of Router 1 to perform loading the preconfigurations using a terminal emulation program.
3. Transfer the configuration from PC1 to Router 1:

1) In the terminal emulation program on PC1, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the preconfiguration file and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to

Router 1.

Step 3: Load the preconfiguration on R2

Copy the preconfiguration on R2 using the process detailed in Step 2.

Step 4: Troubleshoot R1

a. Enter the command show interfaces serial 0/0/0 to view the details of the interface.

b. If any errors were found, make the necessary configuration changes to R1.

Step 5: Show the details of Serial interface 0/0/0 on R2

a. Enter the command show interface serial 0/0/0 to view the details of the interface.

b. If any errors were found, make the necessary configuration changes to R2.

Step 6: Turn on PPP debugging

a. Turn on the PPP debug function on both routers by entering debug ppp authentication at the

privileged EXEC mode prompt.

b. Turn off the debug function by entering undebug all at the privileged EXEC mode prompt of both

routers.

Step 7: Show the details of the configuration on R2

a. Enter the command show run to view the details of the interface.

b. If any errors were found, make the necessary configuration changes to R2.

R2(config-if)#ppp authentication chap

Step 8: Verify that the serial connection is functioning

a. Ping from R1 to R2 to verify that there is connectivity between the two routers.

b. If the answer for either question is no, troubleshoot the router configurations to find the error. Then do

the pings again until the answer to both questions is yes.

Step 9: Reflection

1. The IP address and subnet mask for R1 s0/0/0 is 196.168.15.1 and 255.255.255.252. R2s s0/0/0 interface was misconfigured to 192.168.15.2 and an incorrect subnet mask of 255.255.255.254. If all PPP authentication and all other parameters were configured correctly would R1 have been able to ping R2? Why or why not? Jawaban: No, there are only two hosts possible with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.254. There is only one host bit left and both are invalid as host addresses.
2. What command allows you to view the details of a specific interface? Jawaban: Show interface serial 0/0/0 or whichever interface you desire.
3. When should you use the debug function in a router? Jawaban: when you want to troubleshoot or to view what is occurring in real-time on the network. Caution should be used so as to minimize the negative impact debugging has on network performance.
4. What is the default serial encapsulation on a Cisco router? Jawaban: HDLC
5. There were a number of configuration errors in the preconfigurations that were provided for this lab. Use this space below to write a brief description of the errors that you found. Jawaban: The student should briefly summarize the errors encountered during troubleshooting.

Lab 9.3.4 Troubleshooting OSPF Default Route Redistribution

Step 1: Connect the equipment

1. Cable the network as shown in the topology diagram.
2. Connect Host 1 to the console port of Router 1 using a console cable to perform configurations.

Step 2: Perform basic configuration on Router 1

Configure Router 1 with a hostname, assign IP addresses to interfaces, assign privileged passwords, and configure for secure console and Telnet access according to the addressing table and topology diagram. Configure OSPF to advertise networks between routers. Save the configuration. This router will serve as an internal router to the network.

Step 3: Perform basic configuration on Router 2

Perform basic configuration on Router 2 with a hostname, assign IP addresses to interfaces, assign privileged passwords, and configure for secure console and Telnet access according to the addressing table and topology diagram. Configure OSPF to advertise networks between routers 1 and 2. Save the configuration. This router will serve as the router connecting the network to the ISP.

Step 4: Perform basic configuration on Router 3

Perform basic configuration on Router 3 with a hostname, assign IP addresses to interfaces, assign privileged passwords, and configure for secure console and Telnet access according to the addressing table and topology diagram. OSPF will not be configured on this router. Save the configuration. This router will serve as the ISP side router.

Step 5: Configure the hosts with IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway

a. Configure Host 1 and Host 2 with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

1) Host 1 should be assigned 192.168.1.5 /24 and the default gateway of 192.168.1.1.

2) Host 2 should be assigned 10.0.1.10 /24 and the default gateway of 10.0.1.1.

b. Each host should be able to ping its default gateway. If the ping is not successful, troubleshoot as

necessary. Check and verify that the workstation has been assigned a specific IP address and default

gateway.

Step 6: Configure default routing

In this scenario, the devices will have the following functions:

• • Router 1 (R1) will be an internal enterprise network router.
• • Router 2 (GW) is to serve as the gateway router connecting the network to the ISP.
• • Router 3 (ISP) represents the ISP side of the Internet connection.
• • Host 1 represents an internal network host.
• • Host 2 (or loopback interface) connected to Router 3 represents a resource on the Internet.

Step 7: Troubleshooting default routing

Default routing is susceptible to many of the same issues that can cause problems with any OSPF route propagation

1. Shut down the S0/0/1 interface on Router ISP and observe the routing table on Router R1.
2. Observe that the default route is no longer present.
3. Troubleshooting becomes more difficult when the GW router is configured to always send the default routing information. Configure this option on the GW router now.

Step 8: Reflection

1. Can a default route be advertised by an OSPF router that does not have the next hop in its routing table? Jawaban: Yes, if the default-information originate always command is configured; otherwise, no.
2. List three things that can cause OSPF default route propagation to fail? Jawaban: any OSPF router configuration error or network issue such as: mismatched areas, mismatched timers, incorrect IP addresses, interfaces down, incorrect networks being advertised, etc.
3. What type of OSPF router does a router that injects a default route into the OSPF process become? Jawaban: An Autonomous System Boundary Router, because the default route points to a network outside of the OSPF domain.
4. What is an advantage and a disadvantage of using the default-information originate command over configuring default routes on all routers? Jawaban: An advantage is that it is much easier to configure and manage a single static route and redistribution command than to have to configure on each device. Disadvantages are that any OSPF error can cause the loss of the default route and it tends to be more difficult to troubleshoot

CCNA 3 Lab 9.3.4 Troubleshooting Default Route Redistribution with EIGRP

Step 1: Connect the equipment

1. Connect the Serial 0/0/0 interface of Router 1 to the Serial 0/0/0 interface of Router 2 using a serial cable.
2. Connect the Serial 0/0/1 interface of Router 2 to the Serial 0/0/0 interface of the ISP router using a serial cable.
3. Connect Host H1 to the console of Router 1 using a rollover cable to perform configurations and use a crossover cable to connect the NIC of H1 to the Fa0/0 of R1.
4. Connect Host H2 to the console of Router 2 using a rollover cable to perform configurations and use a crossover cable to connect the NIC of H2 to the Fa0/0 of R2.
5. Connect Host H3 to the console of ISP using a rollover cable to perform configurations.

Step 2: Load the preconfigurations for R1, R2, and ISP

1. See your instructor to obtain the preconfigurations for this lab. Instructor note: The preconfigurations and final configurations can be found at the end of this lab.
2. Connect the PC to the console ports of the routers for loading the preconfigurations using a terminal emulation program.
3. Transfer the configuration from H1 to Router 1:

1) In the terminal emulation program on H1, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the file for the configuration of Router 1 provided by your instructor and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to Router 1.

3) When the transfer is complete, save the configuration. 4.

1. Repeat the transfer process from H2 to Router 2:

1) In the terminal emulation program on H2, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the file for the configuration of Router 2 provided by your instructor, and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to Router 2.

3) When the transfer is complete, save the configuration.

1. Repeat the transfer process from H3 to ISP:

1) In the terminal emulation program on H3, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the file for the configuration of ISP provided by your instructor, and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to ISP.

3) When the transfer is complete, save the configuration.

Step 3: Configure the hosts with IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway

1. Configure each host with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

1) H1 should be assigned 192.168.1.2 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway of 192.168.1.1.

2) H2 should be assigned 192.168.2.2 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and the default

gateway of 192.168.2.1.

H1 ping the FastEthernet interface of R1? __________ yes

Step 4: Check connectivity between hosts H1 and H2

a. Ping from Host H1 to Host H2.

Is the ping successful? __________ No

Step 5: Show the routing tables for each router

From the enable or privileged EXEC mode of both routers, examine the routing table entries, using the

show ip route command on each router.

Step 6: Verify that routing updates are being sent

a. Type the commands debug ip eigrp and clear ip route * at the privileged EXEC mode

prompt of R1. Wait for at least 45 seconds.

Was there any output from the debug commands on R1? __________ yes

What is missing from the debug output on R1? __________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________

The installation of a route toward the ISP, EIGRP is not properly configured.

b. On R1, use the show ip protocols command to determine the problem. Review the topology

diagram and the networks that should be associated with each router interface.

c. On R2, use the show ip protocols and show ip route commands to determine the problem.

Review the topology diagram and the networks that should be associated with each router interface.

Step 7: Show the routing tables for each router

From the enable or privileged EXEC mode of both routers, examine the routing table entries, using the show

ip route command on each router.

Step 8: Show the EIGRP topology table entries for each router

a. To view the topology table, issue the show ip eigrp topology command on R1.

b. To view more specific information about a topology table entry, use an IP address with this command:

Step 9: Show the EIGRP traffic entries for R1

Issue the show ip eigrp traffic command on R1.

What were the results?

Step 10: Test network connectivity

From H1, is it possible to ping the FastEthernet interface of R2? __________ yes

From H1, is it possible to ping Host H2? __________ yes

From H1, is it possible to ping the S0/0/0 of the ISP? __________ yes

From H2, is it possible to ping the FastEthernet interface of R1? __________ yes

From H2, is it possible to ping Host H1? __________ yes

From H2, is it possible to ping the S0/0/0 of the ISP? ________ yes

If any answer is no, troubleshoot to find the error. Ping again until successful.

Step 11: Reflection

1. What does ping test? Jawaban: it tests to see if another device on a network can be reached and the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and return to the source.
2. When should the show ip protocols and show ip eigrp topology commands be used? Jawaban: The show ip protocols and show ip eigrp topology commands should be used first to determine routing-related problems. If the problem is not determined, then use debug commands.
3. When should the debug ip eigrp command be used? Jawaban:  to see if updates are being sent on a network to determine if it is functioning properly. It is a great troubleshooting command but should be used with caution because it can severely interrupt a network.

Lab 9.3.3 Troubleshooting OSPF Routing Issues

Step 1: Connect the equipment

1. Connect the Fa0/0 interface of each router to the Fa0/1 interface of each switch using a straightthrough cable.
2. Connect each host to the Fa0/2 switch port of each switch using a straight-through cable.
3. Connect serial cables from each router to the other routers according to the topology diagram.

Step 2: Load the preconfiguration on R1

1. See your instructor to obtain the preconfigurations for this lab. Instructor note: The preconfigurations are included at the end of this lab.
2. Connect a Host H1 to the console port of Router 1 for loading the preconfigurations using a terminal emulation program.
3. Transfer the configuration from H1 to Router 1:

1) In the terminal emulation program on the PC, choose Transfer > Send Text File.

2) Locate the file for the configuration of Router 1 provided by your instructor and choose Open to start the transfer of the preconfiguration to Router 1.

3) When the transfer is complete, save the configuration.

Step 3: Load the preconfiguration on R2

Copy the preconfiguration on R2 using the process detailed in Step 2.

Step 4: Load the preconfiguration on R3

Copy the preconfiguration on R3 using the process detailed in Step 2.

Step 5: Troubleshoot Router R1 Issues

You are a network administrator, located at the same site as the R1 router, and a user calls the help desk stating that they cannot connect to a file server. You determine that the user is on the 192.168.1.0 network (R1) and that the server is on the 192.168.3.0 network (R3). You visit the user and begin troubleshooting.

1. Begin troubleshooting at host H1 connected to the R1 router
2. b. Examine the R1 router to find possible configuration errors. Begin by viewing the summary of status information for each interface on the router.
3. Check to see if there are routes to the other networks by examining the output of the show ip

route command.

1. Check the OSPF neighbor adjacencies on R1 using the show ip ospf neighbors command.

Step 6: Troubleshoot Router R3 Issues

1. To help diagnose potential problems with R3, telnet from R1 to the R3 router using the IP address of the R3 S0/0/0 interface (172.16.7.10) and enter the vty password (cisco) for R3 when prompted. Enter privileged EXEC mode (password class).
2. While connected to R3 via Telnet, use the show ip route command to see which OSPF routes R3 has learned.
3. Use the show ip protocols command to determine which networks R3 is advertising.

Step 7: Troubleshoot Router R2 Issues – Part A

You have resolved the problems with access to the file server on the 192.168.3.0 network.

Step 8: Troubleshoot Router R2 Issues – Part B

Although you resolved the problem with OSPF area mismatch on the R2 WAN link, many of your users stillcannot connect to the ISP through R2. You suspect that the problem is still with R2 but is not related to theOSPF area mismatch problem solved earlier.

1. To verify this, issue more test pings to the ISP.
2. You note that only users on the R2 LAN can access the Internet and users on R2 and R3 LANs cannot.

Step 9: Reflection

A number of configuration errors appeared in the preconfigurations that were provided for this lab. Use this space below to write a brief description of the errors that you found on each router.? Jawaban: The student should briefly summarize the errors identified in this lab.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

2.      What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer

3.      Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements

4.      Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

5.      A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation

6.      What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

7.      An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract

8.      A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.

9.      NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network

10.  The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design

11.  The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

12.  AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.

13.  ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• wireless NICs
• DHCP server
• wireless access points

14.  A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases

15.  A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware

16.  Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team

17.  What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.

18.  In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation

19.  Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
• the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component

20.  Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2.      IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3.      Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4.      Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5.      Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

6.      Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7.      Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8.      What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9.      Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10.  Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

11.   A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.

12.  What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.

13.  What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance

14.  When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.

15.  Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation

16.  What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances

17.  What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN

18.  Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

19.   Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

20.   Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

21.  Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.

22.  A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.

23.  Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

24.   An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM

25.  Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
2.      While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
3.      Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
4.      What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
5.      How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
6.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
7.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
8.      What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated
9.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
10.  Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
11.  Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12.  A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma
13.  In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
14.  Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
15.  Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
16.  Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
17.  Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
18.  Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics
19.  Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
20.  Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.

2.      When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist

3.      Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
• Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

4.      What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network

5.      Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29

6.      A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21

7.      What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2

8.      How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

9.      After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

10.  Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0

11.  Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

12.  Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1

13.  Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

14.  Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

15.  What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.

16.  A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research

17.  How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24

18.  What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries

19.  Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.

20.  Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255

21.  Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248

22.  An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

23.  Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.17.0/24

24.  Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.

25.  Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27

26.  A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.

2.      What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.

3.      When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements

4.      Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking

5.      Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.

6.      Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF

7.      What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing

8.      A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches

9.      Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

10.  Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router

11.  on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points

12.  What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched

13.  Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power

14.  What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization

15.  When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network

16.  What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management

17.  What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance

18.  Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

19.  Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security

20.  What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN

21.  What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor

22.  A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack

23.  Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.

24.  An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay

25.  A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.      In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2.      Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts
• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval

3.      What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow
• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing

4.      In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5.      What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.
• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6.      What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations

7.      A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8.      Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems
• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP

9.      The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented

10.  When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11.  What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12.  When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment

13.  Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.

14.  Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15.  Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16.  Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping

17.  Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default

18.  Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue
• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19.  An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video

20.  A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21.  Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22.   A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

23.  What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic

24.  Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

25.   A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

26.  Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP

27.   network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC

28.  Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29.  When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing