CCNA Discovery 3 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.


Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
• A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.
Jawaban
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.

2.

A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
Jawaban
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.


3. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

4. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

5. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
• after they have been idle for a certain period of time

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

7. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

10. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Reboot the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

11. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
• routers
• switches
• VLANs
• hubs

12. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
• discards data frames received from the attached segment
• receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

13. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

14. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

15. What is the purpose of VTP?
• maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

16. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

17. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
• Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
• Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will not receive the update.

19 Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
• portfast
• rapid spanning tree

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and an Enterprise network
Jawaban

2. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commandsenable Telnet access to the router?
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line con 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork
Router(config)# enable password cisco
• Router(config)# line aux 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Jawaban
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco


3. Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
• maintenance time periods
• intrusion monitoring records
• offsite data storage procedures
• alternate IT processing locations*
• problem resolution escalation steps
Jawaban
• alternate IT processing locations*
• problem resolution escalation steps

4. Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• Telnet password
• hostname
• console password
• subnet mask
• enable secret password
Jawaban
• IP address
• subnet mask

5. Which two devices protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the enterprise edge ?(Choose two.)
• demarc
• IP security (IPSec)
• Data Service Unit (DSU)
• intrusion prevention system (IPS)
• intrusion detection system (IDS)

6. Which three steps must be performed to remove all VLAN information from a switch but retain therest of the configuration? (Choose three.)
• Remove all VLAN associations from the interfaces.
• Remove the 802.1q encapsulation from the interfac
• Issue the command copy start run.
• Issue the command delete flash:vlan.dat.
• Issue the command erase start.
• Reload the switch.

7. What is the demarcation?
• physical point where the ISP responsibilty ends and the customer responsibilty begins
• physical location where all server farm connections meet before being distributed into the Core
• point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable
• point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer devices

8. Which device is responsible for moving packets between multiple network segments?
• router
• switch
• CSU/DSU
• IDS device

10. What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?
• Cisco IOS filename
• configured routing protocol
• status of each interface
• IP addresses of all interfaces

11. Which two situations require a network administrator to use out-of-band management to change arouter configuration? (Choose two.)
• Network links to the router are down.
• No Telnet password has been configured on the router.
• The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.
• The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses.
• Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to routers.

12. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network devices fromtheir homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without increasing vulnerability to externalattacks? (Choose two.)
• Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home computer.
• Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network.
• Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network.
• Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to access management portson network devices.
• Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow external access.

13. A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a catastrophicdisaster prevents a company from performing daily business routines. Which portion of the networkdocumentation is the administrator defining?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• network solvency plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan

14. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two optionscould be implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such an attack in the future?(Choose two.)
• install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge
• reset all user passwords every 30 days
• filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol
• deny external workers VPN access to internal resources
• ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc

15. A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades do not affectbusiness operations. What will the network manager create for this purpose?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan

16. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical datThey are worried that ifsomething happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable information. Which type of plan isneeded for this company to help minimize loss in the event of a server crash?
• business security
• business continuity
• network maintenance
• service level agreement

17. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of companypersonnel, where can a network administrator look?
• Business Continuity Plan
• Business Security Plan
• Network Maintenance Plan
• Service Level Agreement

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about port Fa5/1?
• When a violation is detected, the port will log the information to a syslog server.
• When a violation is detected, the port will go into err-disable mod
• There have been 11 security violations since the last reloa
• The port is currently in the shutdown state.

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What can be found at the enterprise edge?
• Internet, VPN, and WAN modules
• Internet, PSTN, and WAN services
• server farms and network management
• campus infrastructure, including access layer devices
Jawaban
• Internet, VPN, and WAN modules

2. In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be located to detect
• and prevent services from accessing hosts?
• Enterprise Campus
• Edge Distribution
• Enterprise Edge
• Service Provider Edge
Jawaban
• Enterprise Edge

3. A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-business strategies of several firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group of clients in cities throughout the world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)
• VoIP
• VPN
• HTTP
• Telnet
• email
Jawaban
• HTTP
• email

4. Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in an enterprise LAN that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.)
• providing failover capability
• installing redundant power supplies
• purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP
• implementing broadcast containment with VLANs
• installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput
Jawaban
• providing failover capability
• installing redundant power supplies

5. Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the hierarchical design model?
• connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures
• using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers
• printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer
• placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country
• responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department
Jawaban
• printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer

6. How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?
• It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet.
• It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices.
• It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two Internet endpoints.
• It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.
Jawaban
• It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.

7. A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the company. The transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure. Which protocol enables this to happen securely?
• HTTP
• SSH
• Telnet
• FTP
Jawaban
• SSH

8. What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?
• high-quality, live-video presentations
• real-time voice communications over the Internet
• ability to share desktop applications simultaneously
• secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet

9. Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal servers?
• enterprise campus
• enterprise edge
• service provider edge
• building distribution

10. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
• remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach
• divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the concept of Core, Distribution, and Access Layers
• provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single
• component located in the access layer
• reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer

11. Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet access for remote workers? (Choose two.)
• VPN
• NAT
• user authentication
• client firewall software
• packet sniffing

12. Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an enterprise extranet?
• An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise extranet is designed to interconnect remote branch offices.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an enterprise extranet is designed to give access to external business partners.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise.
• An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide remote access to the enterprise network for teleworkers.

13. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• reduces the effect of Ethernet collisions
• reduces the impact of a key device or service failure
• reduces the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• reduces the impact of blocking broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

14. What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?
• performs routing and packet manipulation
• supplies redundancy and failover protection
• provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone
• serves as a network connection point for end-user devices

15. Which three functions are performed at the Distribution Layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• forwards traffic that is destined for other networks
• isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the Core Layer
• allows end users to access the local network
• provides a connection point for separate local networks
• transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites
• forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network

16. What is a benefit of having an extranet?
• It provides web-like access to company information for employees only.
• It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access connections only.
• It allows customers and partners to access company information by connecting to a public web server.
• It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information using controlled external connections.

17. What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)
• providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network
• providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network
• providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections
• providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network against malicious activity
• providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be allowed on the enterprise network

18. Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?
• TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be retransmitted.
• TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP.
• UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications.
• TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or acknowlegements.

19. The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and to the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?
• server farm
• enterprise edge
• enterprise campus
• service provider edge

20. Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead of TCP?(Choose two.)
• TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable.
• The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the streams of data.
• UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets.
• UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them.
• TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
• UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
• authentication
• accreditation
• accounting
• authorization
Jawab:
• authentication
2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
• date and time of message
• ID of sending device
• length of message
• message ID
• checksum field
• community ID
jawab:
• date and time of message
• ID of sending device
• message ID
3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
• It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
• It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
• It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
• It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
Jawab:
• It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
• packet filtering
• proxy
• stateful packet inspection
• stateless packet inspection
Jawab:
• packet filtering
5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
• authentication
• authorization
• accounting
• accessing
Jawab:
• accounting
6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.)
• reviewing backup logs
• performing trial backups
• performing full backups only
• replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
• using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
Jawab:
• reviewing backup logs
• performing trial backups
7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
• trap
• poll
Jawab:
• poll
8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• DHCP
Jawab:
• SNMP
• Telnet
• TFTP
9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
• The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
• The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
• The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
• The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
Jawab:
• The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
• Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
• Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
• Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
• Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
• Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
Jawab:
• Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
• Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• IPSEC
• SSL
• HTTPS
• FTP
• TFTP
Jawab:
• IPSEC
• SSL
• HTTPS
12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
• encryption
• TCP usage
• authorization
• connection using six VTY lines
Jawab:
• encryption
13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
• management information base
• database information agent
Jawab:
• network management database
14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
• Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
• Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
• Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
• Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
• Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
Jawab:
• Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
• Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall?
• “clean” LAN
• intranet
• DMZ
• extranet
Jawab:
• DMZ
16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
• applications
• physical addresses
• packet size
• ports
• protocols
Jawab:
• ports
• protocols
17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
• when a server needs to be monitored across the network
• when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
• when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network
• when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP
Jawab:
• when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
• HTTPS
• IMAP
• FTPS
• IPSEC
• TLS
Jawab:
• IPSEC
19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
• daily
• differential
• full
• incremental
• partial
Jawab:
• full
20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
• auditing
• accounting
• authorization
• access control
• authentication
• acknowledgement
Jawab:
• authentication

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
• The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
• The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
• The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
• The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
Jawab:
• The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
• accessibility
• adaptability
• availability
• reliability
• scalability
Jawab:
• availability
• reliability
3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
• It utilizes TCP port 110.
• A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
• It utilizes a store and forward process.
• The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
• SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
Jawab:
• It utilizes TCP port 110.
• SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
• Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
• Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
Jawab:
• Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
• Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
• Reliability is measured as a percent.
• Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
• Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
• The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
Jawab:
• Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
• Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
• The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• It uses well-known port 23.
• The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
• In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
• It requires two connections between client and server.
• FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
Jawab:
• The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
• In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
• It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
• It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
• It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
• It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
jawab:
• It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
• It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
• It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
• It supports authentication.
• It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
• It encrypts packets with SSL.
• It requires additional server processing time.
Jawab:
• It supports authentication.
• It encrypts packets with SSL.
• It requires additional server processing time.
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
• dynamic lookup
• forward lookup
• resolution lookup
• reverse lookup
Jawab:
• reverse lookup
10.
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
• dynamic
• zone transfer
• local recursive query
• root domain query
• top-level domain query
Jawab:
• dynamic
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
• If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
• The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
• If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
• The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
• Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
Jawab:
• The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
• If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
• maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
• maintaining the ISP server
• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
• forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
• forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
Jawab:
• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
• forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
• connection oriented
• full-duplex operation
• low overhead
• no flow control
• no error-recovery function
• reliable transmission
Jawab:
• low overhead
• no flow control
• no error-recovery function
14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
• FTP
• HTTP
• ICMP
• PPP
• Telnet
• SMTP
Jawab:
• FTP
• HTTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
• DNS – 25
• FTP – 110
• HTTP – 80
• POP3 – 25
• SMTP – 25
Jawab:
• HTTP – 80
• SMTP – 25
16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
• source port with destination port
• source IP address with destination port
• source IP address and destination IP address
• source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
Jawab:
• source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
• SNMP
• FTP
• SMTP
• HTTPS
Jawab:
• SMTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
• Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
• Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1045
• Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80
• Source – 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1061
Jawab:
• Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:1045
19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
• caching-only
• root
• second-level
• top-level
Jawab:
• caching-only
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
• The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
• The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
• The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
• The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
Jawab:
• The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
21.

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• MAC address
• session number
• sequence number
Jawab:
• IP address
• MAC address

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
• show ip protocols
2.  

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
• 16
• 17

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
• when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. Consider this routing table entry
• R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
• a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route

5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
• subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number

7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v2

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
• routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

9.

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
• Immediately

10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
• All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
• to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
• border gateway router
• DSLAM
• web server
• interior router

15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
• show ip rip database
16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
• a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
• a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP

23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• Ping
• show arp
• Traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
• autonomous system

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1.vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.

2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• user EXEC mode

3.Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• all configured passwords

4.Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber

6.Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• privileged EXEC mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

11.Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• domain name
• interface IP addresses
• DNS server IP addresses

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PPP

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip route

18.A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• Telnet

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID

20. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• clocking for the synchronous link

21.Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed

22.Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

23.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024
Jawaban :
• 256

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110
Jawaban
• 11100111


3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
Jawaban :
• 254

4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
Jawaban :
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
Jawaban :
• Class C

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
Jawaban :
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
Jawaban :
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62
Jawaban :
• 30

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255
Jawaban :
• 192.168.32.255

10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
Jawaban :
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 64
• 96
• 128
• 192
• 256
• 512
Jawaban :
• 128

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 127 to 191
• 127 to 192
• 128 to 191
• 128 to 192
Jawaban :
• 128 to 191

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
Jawaban
• Class A

14. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
Jawaban :
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
Jawaban :
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
Jawaban :
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
Jawaban :
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 255 and below
• 1024 and below
• 1025 and above
• 64,000 and above
Jawaban :
• 1025 and above

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address
Jawaban ;
• inside global

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved router performance
• decreased processor load
• improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
Jawaban :
• improved security
• improved scalability
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA 2 Lab Skill Chapter 3

Lab 3.2.4.2 Evaluating a Cabling Upgrade Plan

Objectives
• Examine the existing floor plan of a customer.
• Propose a cable upgrade plan to accommodate extra floor space.

Background / Preparation
A medium sized company has existing space on the second floor of an office tower and has just acquired the rest of the second floor. They have asked you to examine their existing floor plan and assist the the placement of a new IDF, placement of cables to support all of the new office space, and to help determine if any new devices are required. This lab can be done individually or in groups. The following resources are required:
• Existing Floor Plan (provided)

Step 1: Examine the existing floor plan
a. From the information provided on the existing floor plan, label the following items:
1) POP –Point of Presence
2) MDF – Main Distribution Facility
3) IDF – Intermediate Distribution Facility
4) vertical/Backbone Cabling
5) Horizontal Cabling
b. What type of cabling could be used for the vertical/back bone cabling? Explain your answer
kabel yang digunakan ialah vertical backbone cable, alasannya karena jaringan yang akan dibangun terletak pada lantai dua dan jika dianalogikan posisi masing masing device kerja atau bagian kerja akan bersimpangan. Oleh karena itu kabel yang digunakan ialah vertical backbone cable dangan sambungan vertical patch panel.

Step 2 :Evaluate plan for new floor space.
Any Company has just merged with a small web design group and has acquired the remaining space on the second floor to accommodate the web design team . This new space is represented on the diagram as the floor space highlighted on the right side of the floor plan. It has been decided to add a second IDF to support the work stations in the new area.

a. Suggest a possible location for the new IDF . What room / location did you choose and explain why you think it is suitable?
ruangan / lokasi yang cocok untuk memasang IDF baru ialah pada telecommunication room . karena IDF sebagai fasilitas pendistribusi merupakan perangkat yang harus tersusun dengan perangkat server.
b. What type of cable would you suggest for the vertical cabling required to connect the new IDF to the existing MDF? Explain your reasons
jenis cable yang digunakan untuk menghubungkan IDF dan MDF adalah Horizontal Cabling, alasannya IDF dan MDF dihubungkan untuk langsung terkoneksi ke area kerja (work area) sehingga harus menggunakan cabel horizontal.
c. The new space contains mostly offices. Assume that each office will be provisioned with 2 data drops. Also plan for 2 drops in the auditorium to support Internet access for presentations and training sessions. How many additional data drops need to be ordered?
dibutuhkan dua data drops lagi.
d. You have been asked to determine the number of new 24 port switches required for the new IDF. Remember to plan on approximately 25% growth. How many new switches will Company ABC need to purchase?
banyaknya switch yang dibutuhkan dengan perkembangan perusahaan yang dianalisa 25% adalah 60 buah switch dengan perhitungan. Masing – masing lantai terdiri dari 24 switch dan perlutambahan untuk perkembangan sebanyak 6 buah = 24 x 2 =48
+ 12 =60 buah switch
e. How many horizontal cables will terminate on patch panels in the new IDF?
sebanyak 32 buah kabel horizontal, termasuk pada telecommunications room.

Step3: Examine the floor space and wiring plan.
a. What equipment other than switches would you expect to find in the new IDF?
horizontal cable, switch,hub
b. What equipment other than switches would you expect to find in the MDF?
vertical cable,router.
c. Using existing cable runs, could you use UTP to connect the devices in room 2.20 or 2 .30 directly into a switch in the MDF?
ya bisa dapat langsung digunakan.

Step 4 . Reflection
a. Is it better to have an IDF in this floor space or should the company run the horizontal cables for each device directly back to the existing MDF?
lebih baik menggukan IDF dengan koneksi kabel horizontal untuk terhubung sebagai mediator untuk distribusi.
b. How many cables will be required from the MDF to the IDF to support the switches? Explain your answer
3 buah kabel, alasannya setelah terkoneksi dengan router, dibutuhkan 3 lagi alat berupa repeater. Maka agar alat itu bisa digunakan dibutuhkan 3 lagi kabel horizontal.

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

 CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds
• improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts
• centralized cable management
• less electrical usage

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room
• poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
• lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable
• console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub
• router
• switch

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility
• reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations
• switches and routers
• fax machines
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence
• copier

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup
• increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area
• point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame

18.

to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP
• IDF
• IXP

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

 CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
• initiating the network communication process
• encrypting and compressing data for transmission
• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
• choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• routes data between networks
• converts data to bits for transmission
• delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
• formats and encodes data for transmission
• transmits data to the next directly connected device

3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• incorrect subnet mask
• incorrect default gateway
• loose network cable
• NIC improperly installed

4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• a packet sniffer
• Telnet
• ipconfig
• Traceroute

5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address
• destination IP address

6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments
• frames, bits, packets, segments
• packets, frames, segments, bits
• segments, packets, frames, bits

7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• conserving support resources
• network optimization
• competitive scalability
• customer retention
• sales of network services

8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• upgrading hardware and software
• using various web tools
• making an onsite visit
• installing new equipment
• with remote desktop sharing applications

9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• What is the IP address and subnet mask?
• Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
• Can you access your e-mail account?

10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?
• Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the link light lit on your NIC card?

11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
• Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
• After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• adding the hardware address
• converting data to bits
• encapsulating data into frames
• signal generation
• routing packets

13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Can you ping the default gateway?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
• Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?

14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
• A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
• An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
• surveying network conditions for further analysis
• configuring new equipment and software upgrades
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy
• e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 1
• Level 2
• Level 3
• Level 4

17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
• identify and prioritize alternative solutions
• isolate the cause of the problem
• define the problem
• select an evaluation process

18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
• Do you have a link light on your network card?
• Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
• What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
• Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• improper IP address configuration on the host
• hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
• bad cables or connections at the customer site
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session
• application, session, network
• presentation, transport, network
• presentation, network, data link
• session, transport, network

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

 CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the number of routers between the source and destination device
• the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
• the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
• whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
• the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• DSL
• cable modem
• Ethernet
• metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3

3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 56 kbps
• 128 kbps
• 1.544 Mbps
• 2.4 Mbps

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
• echo reply issued by source
• echo request issued by destination
• echo reply issued by destination

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
• peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
• uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
• pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
• limits the offered services to small geographic areas

6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
• at a POP
• at an IXP
• at a Metro Ethernet link
• on the ISP extranet

7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
• the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
• the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
• the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
• customer service
• help desk
• network operations
• on-site installation

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• customer service
• help desk
• network operations
• planning and provisioning

10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
• help desk
• customer service
• network operations center
• on-site installation team
• planning and provisioning

11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• a fixed number of interfaces
• ease of repair
• modularity
• low maintenance requirements
• low cost

12. Which command generated this output?
• 1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
• 2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
• 3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
• Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
• Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
• Router# ping 34.0.0.4
• Router# telnet 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• ping
• ipconfig
• traceroute
• ixp

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• gateway routers
• IXPs
• POPs
• satellite dishes

15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
• bits per second
• bytes per second
• hertz
• megabytes per second
• packets per second

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• web hosting
• planning and provisioning
• application hosting
• equipment colocation
• Tier 1 ISP services

17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
• to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
• to connect a business to an ISP
• to provide data communication services to ISP customers
• to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients

18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1979
• 1984
• 1991
• 1999
• 2000

19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• voice communication
• marketing
• research
• commerce

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
• help desk
• computer support
• application readiness
• network operations center
• planning and provisioning
• implementation and documentation